08 January 2021 2 6K Report

Inverse of electron's effective mass can be obtained as second derivative of energy for k. On the other hand, linear dispersion gives value of zero for second derivative since second derivative of E=kA(which means linear dispersion relation; for A is constant) equals to zero. That means the value of effective mass diverges to infinite not zero. However, Dirac cones which has linear dispersion are understood as manifestation of massless Dirac fermion. I want to know what I'm misunderstanding.

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