There are classic examples of heterozygote superiority (e.g., the malarial resistance of individuals heterozygous for the sickle-cell gene). But, how common — across the genome and across taxa — is heterozygote superiority?

I can think of two crudely relevant data points. In a wide array of taxa well over 50% of loci are monomorphic (which suggests no heterozygote advantage at those loci). On the other hand, inbreeding depression implies a homozygote disadvantage, at least at some loci.

The reason I said these facts are crudely relevant is because of a 2002 paper by Derek Roff where he presents experimental evidence that inbreeding depression (in a cricket) results more from an increased incidence of harmful recessives than from a reduction in the frequency of beneficial heterozygotes. If that result generalizes it does not argue for the prevalence of heterozygote superiority. Any thoughts?

Similar questions and discussions