I am wondering how agricultural economist consider land (price or value) when calculating operating costs for farmers. Since some farmers own all of their land (own outright and have no payments) , some are buying or rent all of their land, and some (probably most in the U.S.) own outright and rent or are purchasing. I am considering this from the standpoint of the economics of implementing conservation practices (e.g. cover crops and manure management). So if a farmer has no payments on all of their land, they would have much more room in their budget to implement conservation practices. Whereas a farmer who rents or is buying all of theirs would not have that flexibility in their budget. I'm just wondering if there is a standard assumption that ag economists use.