Why does the cutoff being used in febrile seizure criteria are children aged between 6 months of age until 60 months of age? Is there any reason behind that? I have tried my best to find it but no results whatsoever. Is it just a consensus?
Do you mean lower threshold? Is there any population based studies that said that children within this age limits have an increased risk for febrile seizure? Christiyan Naydenov
Yes,I mean lower threshold. There are many studies on this topic. Im working on Epilepsy and cerebrivascular diseases and this is the common conclusion in all the world studies. Here you can see part of my work. The file is in Bulgarian language except of the abstract but you can use google translater easy.