I have seen a plethora of scholars using a cutoff value for independent variables to enter into the multivariable analysis. They usually use 0.2 or 0.25 as a cut of point to take variables from bivariable to multivariable analysis. But, I personally don't believe as the procedure is highly exposed to bias which could give us a biased estimate finally because of confounders. Any saying, please?

Thank you!

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