The father has not lived w. his daughter from the beginning of his life.  So wouldn't this mean that his aversion to sexual relations would not be determined by a mechanism accounted for by the Westermarck Effect?   The daughter's aversion can run along the lines of sibling on sibling aversion because she has lived w. the the father from birth.  So it's the father's self-inhibition that puzzles me.  It can't all be cultural.

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