Hard borders are a relatively new phenomenon, concerning persons and markets, according to Eric Hobsbawm. The modern state as having 'full' control over citizens and trade is about 100 years old, e.g. before WW1, the majority of people who migrated to the US brought their birth certificates and the like. The evolution of the modern mass society is strongly connected to territorial control, in terms of power structure.
It is certainly true that the hard borders are relatively new phenomenon, so is it possible to distinguish Czech/Slovak etc. national markets within Austria-Hungary, or Bulgarian within the Ottoman empire? Perhaps we need some measure for market integration ...
N.Angell wrote `Europe's Optical Illusion`in 1909; this was an argument that intensified economic market integration makes war impossible; quite the opposite happened. Economic welfare in the US (before 1776) and in France (before 1789) was very agreeable, but revolutions set in. The power structure of the modern territorial tax state requires hard borders to control citizens and trade ; Brexit and Trumpism are good examples of this tendency to defend the economic status quo for certain rentier elites.
Perhaps I have to be more precise. I do agree with all the things mentioned in the last answer. But my point is - in the old Marxist economic historiography of Bulgaria for example there is clear notion that the Bulgarian national market emerged during the 19th c., when Bg was part of the Ottoman empire. Is this possible? What was the situation in Slovenia, Slovakia, the Czech lands, and even Hungary before 1867 - were there national markets within Austria-Hungary, or Finnish national market within the Russian empire in 19th century?