Hola Guillermo la verdad no conozco nada al respecto.

Saludos

That is very interesting. Are there any other uses of that postposition? Is it never used for general vocative purposes? This might have interesting bearings analytically on the question about subjecthood of imperatives (sometimes considered to be without subject). How does Cabécar mark subjects in indicative sentences?  

Guilliermo,

Can you direct us to some samples?

Guillermo, could you provide some more details? examples? a contrastive analysis?

Do you mean something like: "Tim-x, open the door for me, please!" > where x is the postposition? In Romanian this phenomenon is seen for both common and proper nouns, singular and plural forms.

Guilliermo,

Wikipedia is pretty detailed about the languages where vocative forms are used, at least the examples about Bulgarian language are correct. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vocative_case

If the initial text is changed, therefore that ‘grammatical marker means vocative, well, the list is long, almost all flective language have a mark, i.e. ending, for the vocative. But I think the sense of the initial question was different, but the initiator does not seem to illuminate us. Latin or most Slavic languages, as an example, have a specific ending for the vocative, but the list is, of course, longer.

For example, Bulgarian marks the question by particle li placed after the first elements of a sentence, indicating that a question follows. This is a marker indeed, distinct from the usual verb endings (no endings for nouns, excepting the plural ending -i).

Thank you for the answers you have given.

Let me give you further details.

The postposition doesn’t have another uses.

It isn’t a vocative marker.

In indicative sentences, the cabécar is an ergative language. The ergative marker is the postposition “te”.

Examples:

Yís te i sũã

1SG ERG 3 see-PFV

‘I saw it’

Freddy, bá kũ i sũõ

Freddy 2SG COM 3 see-IMP

‘Freddy, see it!’

In Spanish the directive is marked by subjunctive, and even an oblgagtory subjunctive for a negative such as "No lo hagas," or "No lo haga..  Positive directives do not have these negative obligatory markers.  Tu form is indicative and the Ud form is subjunctive.  Lesson learned.  DON"T use the directive speech when speaking Spanish!!!  

In Catalan (like in Spanish, another language of Latin origen), the person who is given an order takes the Accusative case (like the Direct Object) when the action is transitive or reflexive.

The usual structure for the Imperative  is to locate the pronouns in "weak form" at the end of the verb (with an apostrophe or a hyphon, according to initial vowel or consonant). It is an Indirect object, just before the direct object, if any.

Example (English--> Catalan):

"Comb your hair" --> "Pentina't el cabell" (singular) // "Pentineu-vos el cabell" (plural)

"Wash your hands" --> "Renta't les mans" (sing) // "Renteu-vos les mans" (plural)

"Listen to your own voice" --> "Escolta't la veu" (sing) // "Escolteu-vos la veu" (plural)

For the respect for (Usted in Spanish), the Catalan form is similar to the third form (se, 's for singular: se for plural):

"Pentini's el cabell" (singular) // "Pentin-se el cabell" (plural, arcaicism)

If it is not a transitive verb, the Imperative would also locate the pronoun at the end of the verb:

Example:

"Get up, please! -->  "Lleva't, siusplau!" (sing.) // "Lleveu-vos, siusplau!" (plural)

Respectful form: "Llevi's, siusplau!" (sing.) // "Llevin-se, siusplau!" (plural-arcaicism)

"Sit down!" --> "Seu-te!" (singular) [Also without pronoun: "Seu!"] // "Seieu-vos!" (plural)

Respectful form: "Segui's!" (singular) // "Seguin-se!" (plural)

... I'm not sure this is what you were asking, though... :-)

hi Gulliremo

I reckon Thai language has manifested such a feature.