It is well known that brittle materials absorb lesser energy to fracture than the ductile materials. Does this imply that the brittle materials have lower tensile strength than the ductile materials? Its baffling in the sense that if brittle materials have lower tensile strength than the ductile counterparts, then the hardness (which is in direct proportion to tensile strength) must be more in case of ductile materials. But we all know it is the other way round. Where is the justification going wrong?

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