Does it make sense to include a cross-level interaction term in a multilevel model without specifying a random slope for the Level-1 variable?
I am well aware that a cross-level interaction effect between variables X (level 1) and Z (level 2) can be tested, even if X has no significant random slope (see Snijders & Bosker, 1999, p. 96). However, there is clearly a difference between an insignificant random slope and not including a random slope term at all in a cross-level interaction model.
The reason I'm asking:
I have vignette data at level 1 nested within individuals at level 2. I want to test a cross-level interaction between "context" (a vignette-level variable) and "gender" (an individual-level variable). I am not interested in testing whether the effect of the vignette-level variable varies randomly across individuals (random slope model). I am only interested in testing whether the effect of the vignette-level variable varies between boys and girls (model with cross-level interaction effect). However, I'm wondering about the extent to which the effect and the significance of the cross-level interaction term in the model depends on the inclusion of the random slope term.
Many thanks in advance,
Arne