Hi folks, can anyone provide me with explanations or references regarding why a vaccine would block disease symptoms, but not onward transmission of the pathogen? Leaving aside variations in pathogen mutation rates, are there immunological reasons for this? This, of course, is a concern for the current crop of vaccines. So, let me be specific: the three vaccines currently slated for release all ultimately produce antibodies against the Sars-2 CoV spike proteins. Thus, they should halt or significantly reduce viral replication. This would appear to lead to a decrease in viral transmission. Or no?
Thank you!
Injectable vaccines produce primarily IgG1 antibody that could protect SARS-CoV-2 or any other pathogen upon entering the blood circulatory system. Only mucosally delivered vaccines produce IgA (secretory antibody) that will quote the mucosal surface and minimize transmission through surface neutralization of the virus or pathogen.
As a vaccine researcher I use the analogy of body armor to describe vaccine protection:
1. bare skin
2. T shirt
3. padded leather jacket
4. chain mail
5. plate armor
Ideally, you want at least chain mail-level protection. You're gonna still feel the pain of a sword cut. The higher levels of circulating Antibodies in a vaccine recipient will cut down on symptoms and levels of virus, but the person can still be infected and pass on the virus.
Injectable vaccines produce primarily IgG1 antibody that could protect SARS-CoV-2 or any other pathogen upon entering the blood circulatory system. Only mucosally delivered vaccines produce IgA (secretory antibody) that will quote the mucosal surface and minimize transmission through surface neutralization of the virus or pathogen.
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