Colleagues,
A bit of a puzzle, I am reviewing the effect of an intervention against coronary heart disease (CHD) in a large population (at least 250 000 subjects drawn from North American (USA and Canada), Western Europe (UK, Germany, Netherlands), Southern Europe / The Mediterranean, India, Taiwan and Japan). The challenge is that some of the studies state RR values while others use OR values. Is there a concise way to convert RR values to OR values?
I ran into an argument that was raised in Grant (2014) Converting an odds ratio to a range of plausible relative risks for better communication of research findings, BMJ, 2014, doi: 10.1136/bmj.f7450. The author argues that one can convert OR values to RR, the converse can be true - one can convert RR values to OR?
RR = OR / (1 - p + (p x OR)) (Grant, 2014)
To use the equation, how can one determine the baseline risk of CHD (p) for each of the populations above (North American (USA and Canada), Western Europe (UK, Germany, Netherlands), Southern Europe / The Mediterranean, India, Taiwan and Japan)? Can we assume that baseline risk of such study populations is zero (0) since the subjects recruited into each study were CHD free (obviously there is always a baseline risk greater than 0!)?
Can someone suggest a way to treat such data (RR / OR)?
Thank you in advance.