So with the CSII and it's 2 dimensions, the normative and the informational, you have a way to measure it's influence on purchase intention. If with the informational dimension you measure one's inclination to accept information from others as a validation of reality, you are thereby influenced and your intention is changed. So if I measure high on the scale I will be very influenced to buy. But can't this dimension used to measure anything else? If I measure a price variable, can't it influence it too? If I am verys susceptable to price and I score high on the informational dimension, can´t I assume that for that particular variable I am very susceptable to be influenced, therefore if anyone wanted to influence me via marketing all they had to do was press that matter?
I had the base from somewhere but stupidly didn't take note of it and I am unable to replicate the search.
Well, if it is a form of social pressure (see answer of Leonidas), then it is certainly theoretically deducible that this phenomenon can cause reactance at least in certain contexts.
As consumer interpersonal influence is dynamic and a composite variable operationalisation of measurable variables and its relation with other endogenous variables is important . The antecedents and precursors help in meeting the study objectives.
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