01 January 1970 34 9K Report

Our answer is NO. Think of it: Pythagorean Triples would NOT exist if numbers are arbitrary as values. Given a and b, c is fixed or it doesn't exist.

Given 2 and 3, what is c?

Prime numbers seem not arbitrary either. Some people consider prime numbers as just some feature of Z, which does not exist for composite numbers. And, they think, there are no primes or coprimes in Z_p, p-adic numbers, except for some numbers, which end by 0; there are no negative and positive numbers; there are not even or odd numbers (I e., they may point to the number 19 underscore 31, is it even or odd?).

Instead, let's be humble and observe nature. A prime number in any place of the universe must be a prime number. Here on Earth and in the star Betelgeuse. It is not a feature defined by a human.

Dedekind (1888) was incorrect, and mathematical real-numbers an illusion, that cannot be calculated (Gisin, Gerck).

That is why a number is a semiotic quantity. Numbers can be thought of as a 1:1 mapping between a symbol and a value. Digits become a “name”, a reference, and it is clear that one can use different “names” for the same number as a value.

So, the number 1 can have a name as "1", "2/2", "3/3" and infinitely many more, but is always 1 in value.

Equality of rational numbers does not have to have the same name for each other, as "2/3=2/3".

They can also obey the rule that their cross product is equal in value, so that "2/3=4/6".

That way, equivalence extends equality in a consistent way, even though the numbers are neither equal nor divisible. This is possible because numbers are semiotic quantities, and is essential to understand quantum computing.

Numbers are not arbitrary as values, which can allow us to calculate prime numbers using periodicity.

What is your qualified opinion?

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