How likely do Western European indigenous populations(Nordics, Germanics, and Celtics), actually have the lowest in genetic diversity per individual, yet other populations with higher genetic diversity per individual (for example indigenous East Asians) have higher numbers and thus have a lower total genetic diversity across each of their groups? How? Why? My answer: The likelihood is very high that Western European indigenous populations(Nordics, Germanics, and Celtics), actually have the lowest genetic diversity per individual, yet other populations with higher genetic diversity per individual(for example indigenous East Asians and indigenous Eastern European) have higher numbers and thus have a lower total genetic diversity across each of their groups. That explains why Western European indigenous populations(Nordics, Germanics and Celts) have the most recessive traits. And thus Western European indigenous populations(Nordics, Celtics and Germanics) are derivatives of all other peoples.
Sources(each conclusion of these books) :
Book Proving the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus through Critical...
Book Analysis of Nordic Politics
Book The Future of Humans in This Universe
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