For an ideal superconductors susceptibility is -1, however, for real superconductors it is always less then -1, why? 

When one say Susceptibility=-1, does it mean (emu/cm3)/Oe? or do it need to be multiplied with 4*pi?

How do we determine the superconducting volume fraction? is it right for one to say that the superconducting volume fraction is 50% if  for example, for the lowest temperature, FCsusceptibilty = -0.4 and ZFCsusceptibilty = -0.8.

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