Hi Community, I am trying to estimate Foreign trade elasticities using two approaches for cointegration relationships: DOLS and ARDL. Yet, the results of the coefficients are very VERY different. Coefficients from ARDL are half in the magnitude of those from DOLS. Supposedly, ARDL is more accurate than DOLS because there is no need that all variables to be I(1), but the results that I get using ARDL are really rare (magnitude and significance level). On the other hand, DOLS results are quite convincing in magnitude, sign and significance level. May does someone help me to understand why this is happening? Sample 1997q1-2016q4, dependent variables (2 different equations): real exports and real imports, explanatory variables: trade partners gdp (for exports), domestic gdp (for imports) and reer. All variables are I(1). Thank you for your time!

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