I would contest (or add to) John Gray's assertion that there is a difference that is rooted in biology/hormones. It seems to excuse behaviours that are under voluntary control. We need also to consider the influences socialisation and stigma (e.g. 'slut shaming' of women's sexual behaviour when similar actions by men might be considered acceptable). These govern/shape what behaviours are perceived as socially acceptable. It would be helpful to look at the literature around dating apps and who (which gender) makes the first 'move'/communication - because in this context, it can be reasonably assumed that everyone using the dating app is looking for a date, yet dating behaviour remains gendered. I also think the question's provocatively phrased - and heteronormative. Not all men (not even all straight men) engage in this behaviour, and 'always' is a strong term.
As a woman, you are clearly unaware of the male sex drive. Many men, especially when young, experience a strong, almost irresistible urge to engage in intercourse with a woman they are attracted to. It has nothing to do with a relationship. It is about responsiveness - a mental response to eroticism. It is almost impossible for a woman to imagine how this works given we are not aroused consciously in the same way by real world erotic triggers. This explains why some men pay for sex but very few women ever do. Women are looking for a relationship rather than for sex itself. Women are shamed for promiscuity because most people appreciate that they don't need sex in the way that men do. Women make a conscious choice to offer intercourse - they are not erotically driven to obtain it as men are.