How can we convert from Lagrange form in objective function of an optimal control problem to Mayer
Maybe, you find the answer of your question in the attached files
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To convert from Lagrange to Mayer form, introduce a new state variable x0 and let (x0' ) be equal to term inside the integral in the cost function. Also let x0(t0) be 0. So your cost function now becomes J = x0(tfinal), which is in mayer form.
Hope that helps.
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