Can anyone suggest a reason why the association between my SNPs (90 thousand) and two quantitative traits (BMI and age) has a FDR-adjusted P-value over 0.9 for all my SNPs? I think it is very unlikely that not a single SNP is associated... They come from ichip genotyping and I did an imputation with the Michigan Imputation Server.
I had my files in PLINK vcf format and I transformed them to HapMap using TASSEL, and my phenotypes are in a tab separated file just as in the GAPIT manual.
My code was:
myG_tAPIT