We are told that h- and hj- are just allophones in Middle Chinese. (Presumably with hj- in division three). But then we are also told that because g- and h- are in complementary distribution it is reasonable to believe that OC changed *g- to h- in type A syllables. Well, where did those hj- in type B syllables come from then? And if h and g aren't in complementary distribution it is just that g has a gap in its distribution, with g- only in division III but h- (~ hj-) in all four divisions?
- Badges
- Science topic
More Nathan W. Hill's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions