25 October 2014 5 10K Report

Is there any difference between them?

Most studies of Corporate Governance-firm performance used different type of ownership variables as a proxy for the Internal Governance attitude of a firm. I need to know which variable is usually used to construct such data. Is it the outsider ownership (block-holding that exceeds 5% of the outstanding shares of the firm) or the number/percentage of shares held by the insider which exceeds 5% of the outstanding shares?

I think the concentrated ownership means high private control of a firm by the insiders (managers or board members). If so, do I have to sum up all the percentages of holding of the insiders that equal or above 5% to find the concentration of the ownership?

Other scholars have studied family-owned firms instead of publicly traded firms. Most of well-known data sources have a category called "private firms".

Does it mean family-owned firms in this case, or unlisted firms?

Any help will be highly appreciated.

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