In his Principia, in the Motte translation, Scholium at p. 77, he writes of time, in order to remove "certain prejudices": “Absolute, true and mathematical time, of itself, and from its own nature flows equably without regard to anything external, and by another name is called duration”.

In the Motte translation, p 506, Newton says: “... for whatever is not deduced from the phenomena is to be called an hypothesis; and hypotheses, whether metaphysical or physical, whether of occult qualities or mechanical, have no place in experimental philosophy."

Is it possible that he set aside the issue of time in order to work out the consequences of a absolute time axiom? That absolute time was for Newton a provisional hypothesis?

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