Among Vernon Smith's precepts for valid microeconomic experiments is 'dominance', whereby the payoff function needs to be sufficiently peaked so as to more-than offset the psychological costs of supplying the null-hypothesis response.
Yet, dominance is not a consistent feature of current behavioral economics and experimental economics. Experiments designed specifically to satisfy dominance are the exception, rather than the rule. At first sight, this appears to be cause for concern, at least from a conceptual standpoint.
In your experience, why has the profession (editors and referees) allowed the dominance precept to fall into the "not required" category, and why is it a superfluous methodological requirement -- or is it?