Dear all,

For my research I am analysing whether tariff reductions increase the probability that a product category is imported from a trading partner. However, when working with tariffs, I am concerned about reverse causality.

Besides data on actual implemented tariffs I also have data on the scheduled/planned tariffs. These are the tariff rates that were pre-determined in 1992 before the trade agreement went into force and were planned to be implemented until 2008.

Is it possible to use the scheduled/planned tariffs as a proxy for the actual implemented tariffs? The correlation between the two variables is high, but as the scheduled/planned tariffs were predetermined, they reduce the possibility of reverse causality. Is it correct to do this?

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