20 December 2017 42 8K Report

Just take a subset of the Natural Number Set (2,4,6, ... ,2n, ...) and they map very well on the set of all Natural Numbers (1,2,3,...,n,...). So a lot of (infinite) natural numbers (all of odd numbers) are left behind in this one-to-one mapping (2n onto n) from the Natural Numbers onto the Natural Numbers, Hence our conclusion should be: the Natural Number Set has far more elements than the Natural Number set.

Can we have many different bijection operations (proofs) with different one-to-one corresponding results between two infinite sets? If we can, what operation and conclusion should people choose in front of two opposite results, why?”

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