I measured two groups of data (samples with Z=1 and Z=2) that are different in number and are plotted according to independent variable X and dependent variable Y measurements. The X measurement is slightly different for each sample but ranges from 0.4 to 0.8.
It is fairly obvious from looking at the data that as X increases, Y decreases and lines may be fit to both Z=1 and Z=2 groups. These lines are more or less parallel, but the Z=2 line is below the Z=1 line.
Is there a simple statistical test I may do to show that Z=2 measurements have significantly lower Y for a given X than Z=1 measurements? In other words, I want to calculate the significance that Z=1 and Z=2 as groups are justified in being treated differently from one another due to their contrasting trend lines.