In an article titled, 'Mass drug administration for scabies' in three island communities in Fiji published in New England Journal of Medicine reported that oral ivermectin 1st dose for all and 2nd dose for infected patients led to a reduction in the prevalence of scabies 2 years after intervention by 89% but this reduction is only 59% in standard care group (Topical permethrin to the infected patients and their contacts). What might be the reasons behind these differences in prevalence?

More Harasit Kumar Paul's questions See All
Similar questions and discussions