should a MRSA show resistance to methicillin antibiotic disc compulsorily, inspite of them showing resistance to other penicillin antibiotics if not then they are not mrsa? is it like that can anyone help me out
The MRSA strains have a staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec (SCCmec) in their plasmid that separates them from methicilin sensitive S. aureus.
I think there is no correlation between resistance to methicilin and other beta lactam antibiotics because of the different resistance mechanisms of beta lactam antibiotics in S. aureus.
Do not correlate the MRSA with Methicillin Resistant; It just predictor
Decades ago, only use Methicillin as predictor, and now develope the the other method.
The name of Methicillin resistant SA is now a name and not because resistant to Meth, but: MRSA would be all res to Methicillin, BUT Res to Meth is not always MRSA
Methicillin represents a number of antibiotics that should be resistant to inactivation by bacterial beta-lactamases. Other beta-lactam antibiotics (penicillins and cephalosporins), with the exception of potentiated ones such as amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, lack this characteristic. Consequently it is expected that some bacteria will be resistant to non-penicillinase resistant beta lactam antibiotics but susceptible to methicillin and it likes.
It is noteworthy that CLSI recommendations indicate that MRSA strains should be considered resistant to all beta lactam antibiotics irrespective of their in-vitro susceptibility test profiles.