I recently received a comment from a reviewer on a study based on Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) arguing that the concepts of "risk" and "uncertainty" should **not** be used interchangeably. As I understand (and without going into the discussion about how to include experts' options/expectations), both are measured as the standard deviation/volatility of an asset's time series in MPT, so I do not understand reviewer's comment. What I am missing?
PS: I edited the question because the **not** was missing (thanks, Peter Lerner, for noting that!)