Despite being commonly used for more than one century, the concept of silica saturation has not yet reached a common definition.
According to igneous petrologists dealing with magmas, a silica-undersaturated melt is characterized by nepheline-normative compositions, a silica-oversaturated melt is characterized by quartz-normative compositions and a silica-critically saturated melt is free of nepheline or quartz in the CIPW norm, having olivine-orthopyroxene-normative compositions (being also defined as albite-normative).
According to igneous petrologists dealing with mantle residua (peridotites) a rock with olivine and orthopyroxene (e.g., the classical shallow mantle assemblage plus other minor phases) is to be interpreted as silica-undersaturated composition (because of the presence of olivine). I disagree with this last definition.
According to me a rock with modal or normative olivine-orthopyroxene is to be classified as critically saturated rock. In the classical basalt tetrahedron of Yoder and Tilley, silica-oversaturated compositions plot in the SiO2-Pl-Cpx-Opx field, SiO2-undersaturated compositions plot in the Ne-Pl-Cpx-Ol field and SiO2-critically saturated compositions plot in the Pl-Cpx-Ol-Opx field. Am I right or what?
I have been said that the concept of silica saturation is different if dealing with mantle residua or partial melts. For me this is a concept that can be adopted in the same way in both cases.
In other words: The shallow Earth's mantle is made up of SiO2-critically saturated rocks (strictly speaking metamorphic, not igneous rocks).