We are taught that nature opposes a magnetic flux. Therefore, given that a particle obtaining a quantum spin (say an electron) has a finite area, then when first placed in a magnetic field the quantum spin should try to oppose the flux.
I haven't been able to see this shown in literature and was wondering if someone has seen something or could say otherwise?
Furthermore if this is true, then there should be an ideal magnetic field strength that the quantum spin will first initial be perfectly anti-aligned because it is perfectly opposing the flux. Is this true and have we observed this?
No, because the statement doesn't make sense.
This is all standard stuff, so it would be useful to just look it up: http://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/II_34.html is a good place to start.
Dear Joshua,
The only place that can associate spin with magnetic flux is in two dimensions for all statistics and their associated partition function. In such a case, it can have a quantum effect. Quantized hall fux magnetic that can be associated with a given "turn". Obviously this turn is not the usual Dirac SU (2) turn but something related to the occupation of Landau levels
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anyon
Dear Joshua,
Perhaps you can see it much better within the Quantum Hall Effect in a reference where the Landau levels are put explicitly and the quantization of the magnetic moment besides the anyons
http://www-f1.ijs.si/~mravlje/fqhe.pdf
In the previous post you can see the topological solutions associted to this effect through the homotopy group which is the responsable of this new statistical behaviour of the "spins". The cyclic group is higher than the Z2 and the particles don't follow only fermions and bosons behaviour.
Dear Joshua,
You are absolutely right relating the quantum spin with the magnetic flux.
In 2014, it was experimentally recorded by Kotler et al. that two bound electrons of two separate ions that are forced into parallel spin alignment repel as a function of the inverse cube of the distance:
https://www.nature.com/articles/nature13403.epdf?referrer_access_token=yoC6RXrPyxwvQviChYrG0tRgN0jAjWel9jnR3ZoTv0PdPJ4geER1fKVR1YXH8GThqECstdb6e48mZm0qQo2OMX_XYURkzBSUZCrxM8VipvnG8FofxB39P4lc-1UIKEO1
This means that when they are allowed to be free to switch to least action antiparallel spin, they will magnetically attract as a function of the inverse cube of the distance even against the inverse square repulsion due to their identical charges, because at short distances, the inverse cube magnetic relation overcomes the inverse square electric relation, which is the long standing explanation to the covalent bound that 2 electron establish to associate in molecules and to fill orbitals.
This also is what explains the stability of the electron in its ground state orbital in the hydrogen atom:
http://file.scirp.org/pdf/JMP_2018042716061246.pdf
Best Regards
André
Dear André,
I see that you do one immediate translation between spin and magnetic moment, good. Please, what is the magnetic moment of one neutrino which has spin?
Dear Daniel,
From the way neutrinos can be emitted according to electromagnetism, they can have no magnetic moment and can thus have no spin nor mass, since they turn out to be only momentum energy freely escaping in space, with almost no transverse cross section, contrary to photons.
The mechanics of emission is described in this paper titled "The Mechanics of Neutrinos Creation in the 3-Spaces Model":
http://www.ijerd.com/paper/vol7-issue7/A07070108.pdf
Best Regards
André
- Badges
- Science topic
- Similar topics
- Elementary Particle Physics
- Particle