Different physicists disagree on whether there is such a thing as the wave function of the universe.

- In favor of its existence is the fact that, in the Big Bang picture, all particles (and hence downstream objects) were correlated at the inception of the Universe, and a correlation that has existed at some point in the past ever so loosely continues thereafter since full decoherence never truly sets in. A number of pictures  - Ghirardi-Rimini-Weber, Bohm, even Hugh Everett, et al., - require the existence of the wave function of the universe, denoted Ψ(U).

- Two main categories of objections however belie its existence.

The first category ultimately boils down to a not very solid rejection of non-separability, i.e. to an argument that a full separation between an observer and an observed must always be upheld if any observation or measure is to be objectively valid, and a wave function ascertainable.

The second argument is more compelling, and says that if Ψ exists, then Ψ(U)=Ψ(Ψ,U) in a closed, self-referential loop. Ψ has thereby become an non-observable, unknowable, and as such better relegated to the realm of metaphysics than physics.

 

What say you?

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