I'm not an expert, so correct me if I'm wrong. I have never used RMSE (or RMSE% of true value) for measuring the accuracy of a model. Recently, I met a person that does not agree with my use of RMSE. He told me I have to use (1-RMSE%) to express accuracy. It is not a big problem for me, but it sounds to me as an excuse to find something wrong at any cost. I think that as for p-value (the lesser the higher the significance of a correlation), such a very banal and evident relation can be considered implicit when you measure an attribute. Any ideas?