Not sure about males, but in females, LH is always lower than FSH during the follicular phase on current assays. In the days of older generation assays a LH/FSH ratio >2 was considered a marker of neuroendocrine dysfunction in PCOS and with newer assays we use today >1 is considered abnormal. It would be interesting if someone could share the situation in males.
I'm not an MD, but I have studied endocrinology.
Testo is lower because it is dependant on LH which stimulate Leydig cells, and not on FSH. FSH if it is higher will normally lower secretion of both LH (and testo) and FSH...
Except if FSH production is not regulated for some reason.
Is there a pituitary tumor ?
Some pituitary adenomas can secrete FSH.
This is a case report of such a tumor in a young woman : http://www.biomedcentral.com/1756-0500/6/408
Depends of the situation and hormone levels. As written above, testosterone secretion depends of LH and not FSH. Autoimmune hyophysitis may for instance evoluate insidiously and selectively on certain, but not all pituicites, for instance causing selective LH, but not FSH deficiency and, consequently, causing a decrease in testosterone secretion.
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