I noticed that the RNAse P design for Covid-19 kit is same as H1N1, Influenza A (other RNA virus inputs from the CDC’s past docs).

I also noted that the assay only targets exon 1 of this human gene, so it would not allow one to know that whether amplification was from RNA or gDNA if the isolation of nucleic acids was not entirely RNA. So why is there not clear directions in the covid-19 IFU (or prior IFU’s for H1N1 etc.) to ensure that gDNA is not part of the viral/human RNA isolation kit/protocol?

In fact, some of the kits the CDC recommend are total nucleic acid offerings (i.e. Roche) so how does one ensure that you would avoid a false negative that the RNA from the sample was not efficiently isolated and the RNAse P signal is coming from gDNA? I know the CDC suggest to spike in RNA for extraction and that this positive control needs to pass, but many clients of mine are confused by the total nucleic acid isolation approach versus ensuring one only has the viral/human RNA isolated. Why isn’t this clearly communicated in the IFU from the CDC? This would certainly pose issue if one wanted to try to quantitate covid-19 results using RNAse P as a Cq reference gene no?

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