I have seen papers where the maxima of d (lnp)/d(1/T) vs T plots is considered as Neel temperature (TN) for an antiferromagnet or in some cases, charge ordering temperature (in perovskite oxides). Is it related to the sudden change in resistivity with magnetic ordering ?If anyone can suggest some literature for this?
This probably is not always possible. In some rare cases such the magnetic spinels which are generally resistive such stidues have been made by many including myself.
One finds in some case a kink in the plot of resisitivity vs 1/T . But let me insist that this is not a general technique to get the Magnetic transition temperature.
Thanks Prof. Krishnan, I understand that magnetization measurement will be the best way to see the magnetic transition. The material is a doped ABO3 type perovskite and I have resistivity data only at this point of time. So, if my material does fall in that rare category in its pure form (show a kink in the R vs 1/T plot) but does not show any such kink after doping or in influence of external perturbation then can I assume that now there may be no magnetic transition?
This would be ambiguous. Some Mag mat show kink in resitivitiy variationwith T. But then the absence of such a kink would mean nothing or anything. In your case I am afraid that only mag meas should be trusted.
Ok, I understand that it will really be ambiguous in this way. I think one can use such results to support any other measurement for mag transition which is more direct. Still, in my case, it is very difficult to see the transition as it is antiferromagnetic with a very low magnetic moment of the magnetic ion and the sample is a very thin film.
You indeed need a SQUID. The substrate wil be an added problem.
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