In D-M interaction (antisymmetric anisotropic superexchange) D.(S1XS2) originates due to spin-orbit coupling (or considering relativistic correction to spin), which leads to weak ferromagnetism in antiferromagnetic materials. As we know DM interaction have microscopic origin (parameter D) while ferroelectric polarization P is a macroscopic phenomenon which can be experimentally observed. My precise question is: How to make sure that a nonzero D leads to P?
By this paper still I could not convinced why P should exist or produced in the physical sense.A phenomenological parameter (P) due to specific space and time symmetry breaking exists which become equivalent to polarization I can understand. But the way polarization defined using Berry Phase or classically dipole moments per unit volume I could not get. Please help me to understand these points..
They are not related because they have different origin. Polarization induced by spins (magnetic moments) is an intrinsic magnetoelectric effect rather than ferroelectric polarization based on interaction between electric dipoles. But I agree with you that a more important question is whether we can actually measure the first one. As I understand, this is still a theoretical prediction, so far.
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