There is a study on the impact of HIV on mortality in patients with COVID-19 (Article link: https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lanhiv/article/PIIS2352-3018(20)30305-2/fulltext). According to Figure 3 of the article, the unadjusted impact of HIV on death risk was not significant, however the adjusted effect was significant. What could be the reason for this?