Without refering to theories which tried to merge Special Relativity with De Broglie-Bohm theory, can we explain a shifted time mesurement with De Broglie-Bohm theory only?
In other words, at the time of arrival could pilot waves of a cesium clock (moved with length A) be the cause of different results with another clock (moved with length A+B) where A and A+B remain the same displacement?
Von Neumann theory is accurate for Copenhagen interpretation, but accepting non locality Bohm theory is accurate too. (My point is not to discuss about who is right, but to find a way how to explain a result within a specific scientific framework.)
Hafele-Keating is an experiment in classical physics, not quantum physics, so it doesn't test aspects of quantum physics. So it's completely insensitive to any interpretation of quantum effects. The probe is quantum mechanical (the atomic clock) but the effect being probed is classical, namely the structure of Minkowski spacetime. It doesn't test *how* the atomic clocks work, which is where quantum mechanics enters the picture-it tests the result of their operations, assuming that they do, indeed, work as clocks.
Tell us what is that Hafele-Keating experiment. There are so many experiments that it's hard to be aware of all of them.
Now, the de Broglie-Bohm interpretation (dBBI) of QM is known to have problems with the relativity. That DOESN'T mean that the dBBI is wrong. It is not clear at all whether dBBI is correct or not, and any new experiment suggested for testing the dBBI is VERY WELLCOME.
So, please describe the experiment of which you ask.
Well it's best to actually read the paper itself: http://www.sciencemag.org/content/177/4044/166.abstract for the technical details-that, once more, don't test *how* the atomic clocks do operate, as quantum objects-indeed, they're taken as ``macroscopic'' objects. So trying to decide whether the pilot wave-or any other-*interpretation* of quantum mechanical processes is or not correct, on the basis of the results of the Hafele-Keating experiment is, simply, meaningless.
As frequencies are not the same, I ask myself if quantum objects affect them by acting differently too when moving or not relative to an observer. Because De Broglie-Bohm theory is deterministic, pilot waves seem to be a good start for an answer.
When Cesium atom in an atomic clock (in air-craft) moves relative to the observer on the surface of the earth, it develops a resultant pilot wave with respect to the observor and in the direction of the velocity of the air-craft. The resultant pilot wave is the sum total of all the individual pilot waves of the constituent particles of the cesium atom. The resultant pilot wave suffers kinematic and gravitational frequency shift as per the known science thus causing time dialation. Therefore De Broglie pilot wave theory alone can explain Hafele-Keating experiment.
I can go one step further and say that the same principle can be used to explain the decay of the orbital period of the pulsar.
Research Alternative explanation for orbital period decay of a pulsar
No, it cannot, because of the De Broglie formula, V = c^2/v, where V is the velocity of the phase of the wave, and v is the particle velocity, c the velocity of light. For light, v = c. Therefore V = c also. Therefore velocity of the photon and the velocity of the phase of the wave are same for light. It can never go faster than c.
I agree, but because there is an elongation, the velocity c of the light will propulse it further relative to a static observer (not for the moving one which sees everything like you describe). V=c^2/v says nothing about a deformation of the wave (and here frequency is not changed).
Actually the pilot wave doesn't elongate. There is only a time dilation which seems to elongate the wave. Do you agree?
It is-it's just not tested for by the Hafele-Keating experiment. Time dilation in quantum systems, i.e. special relativistic effects of quantum systems is a typical effect in all particle interactions, that take place at relativistic energies, compared to the rest mass of the particles involved.
I know, I never said that H-K experiment was a QM test.
To all,
But ONLY time dilation would imply a measured velocity of the moving observer greater than this measured by the ground observer. (velocity measurement on earth: "perimeter of earth"/"time X"; velocity measurement on plane: "perimeter of earth"/ "time X+/-Y")
As I know no experiments tested it and it would involve a broken principle of relativity (events are not happening at same speed).