Example: A group of 30 people rated their satisfaction levels of places A, B and C
- There are 3 dependent variables, which are the ratings of places A, B and C on a 5-point Likert scale
Running a Friedman's Test, we are able to understand if there is any significant difference in the mean ranks of the different groups (places). My question is, how is running a Friedman's Test different from running multiple Wilcoxon Signed-Rank Tests if we are doing multiple-to-one comparisons? (e.g. we are working for place A, and we want to see the differences in satisfaction levels vs place B and C).
I also understand that we can apply a Bonferroni correction to reduce Type 1 errors. So in this example: 0.05/2 as the different pairs are:
- A vs B
- A vs C
Could the multiple Wilcoxon Signed -Rank Tests be more suitable in this example compared to the Friedman's Test?