03 September 2020 3 3K Report

Example: A group of 30 people rated their satisfaction levels of places A, B and C

- There are 3 dependent variables, which are the ratings of places A, B and C on a 5-point Likert scale

Running a Friedman's Test, we are able to understand if there is any significant difference in the mean ranks of the different groups (places). My question is, how is running a Friedman's Test different from running multiple Wilcoxon Signed-Rank Tests if we are doing multiple-to-one comparisons? (e.g. we are working for place A, and we want to see the differences in satisfaction levels vs place B and C).

I also understand that we can apply a Bonferroni correction to reduce Type 1 errors. So in this example: 0.05/2 as the different pairs are:

- A vs B

- A vs C

Could the multiple Wilcoxon Signed -Rank Tests be more suitable in this example compared to the Friedman's Test?

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