I'm testing the protein solubility of enzymatically treated flours. If, for example, I have several samples and one of them shows twice higher % of digestibility in comparison with the control, does it mean that it will be twice more digestible in human organism? I suppose that it shows only a part of the bigger picture, I would be glad to know how far the results would differ from the actual digestibility in the organism.
Would be happy to read a professional opinion about that!
Your result is a good indication of increased digestibility. Several factors in the body can play a role. Protein digestion begins in the stomach under the action of hydrochloric acid and pepsin. It is supplemented in the duodenum by pancreatic proteases such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, etc. The composition of the food (protein and lipid levels in particular), its temperature, pH, volume, texture and the water it contains are all factors which modify the digestibility and gastric and intestinal mobility (the digestibility also depends on gastric and intestinal mobility).
Could it be said that if the protein was not soluble in water, it would not be available for digestion? The case in mind is that of sorghum proteins.
Thank you.
There are some methodologies that consider the material that becomes soluble after "digestion" (hydrolysis by digestive enzymes). For example, the determination of soluble nitrogen after precipitation with 10% TCA. Because free peptides and amino acids tend to be more soluble than the whole protein chain, and, on the other hand, are also better absorbed. Hence the relationship. It would be an "indicative". But, that is if you are considering the material that is solubilized by the action of enzymes, and if, in its "intact" form, this protein chain is more or less soluble. A protein with low water solubility would not necessarily be of low digestibility ...
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