And if yes: how and (hypothetically) why? There are somewhat contradictory findings in this field. I am always rather sceptic about gender differences, though, as I suspect that there is a publication bias towards not reporting or not discussing the non-occurrence of gender differences.

Therefore I would like to know your opinion, the references you would rely on most, etc.

I am interested in gender differences on the most general level, i.e. do men and women already differ regarding the self-reports of valence, arousal, pleasant and unpleasant feelings.

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