I am measuring the effect of CEO age on a measure of financial reporting quality (FRQ). The pooled correlation between CEO age and FRQ is small but positive, 0.0271 (P=0.000). In the firm fixed effects regression model the coefficient is negative and significant (P=0.037).

I regressed CEO age with individual covariates to see which cause the sign to flip and determined that it is firm size. I believe this makes sense because firm size is significantly and positively related with both CEO age and FRQ *. My understanding is that larger firms have both older CEOs and better FRQ, therefore the pooled correlation shows that CEO age is positively correlated with FRQ. Then, the firm fixed effects model controls for firm size and shows a negative relation between CEO age and FRQ which is a better representation of the relationship.

Can I write-off the correlation and rely more on the fixed effects regression results? If so, are there references I could cite to justify this? Or is the correlation sign still important?

Regression results attached. Thanks for the help!

* Correlation: Firm size - CEO age = 0.1096 (P=0.000), Firm size - FRQ = 0.2258 (P=0.000)

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