For fractional derivative relations when we replace the order of derivative by 1 does that give us the classical derivative relations?
First, you must know that there is no single definition of fractional derivation, but rather that there are several familiarities for a number of mathematicians. But all of these definitions fail, as far as I know, to find that the fractional differentiation of the constant value c is equal to zero, which was known in ordinary calculus.
The imposed restrictions on the kernel of the fractional operator should actually be divided by types of phenomena, in addition to the principles of self-consistency of mathematical theory. In applications of fractional calculus, we have a fundamental question about conditions of kernels of fractional operator of non-integer orders that allow us to describe a particular type of phenomenon.
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