Dear all,
I would like to have your opinion about this doubt that I have.
Meta-analyses of observational studies are often rich of bias sources, but they offer a high number of patients exposed to a certain risk factor for very long times. In contrast, meta-analyses of clinical trials are not affected by bias sources, but, often, the number of patients exposed to the same risk factor is much lower with respect to the observational studies, as well as the time of exposure is not always enough.
Hence, are the results from these two kinds of meta-analyses comparable between them, someway?
Many thanks.