- Zero because how come there is value for nothing?
- Infinity because how come there is a value for everything?
- Does the fact that we use Infinity and Zero to express ideas mean that our mathematical system is flawed? Not necessarily in a bad way, maybe because there is no other way to express such ideas ,that we know of, other than using zeros and Infinities.
- Isn't mathematics supposed to be the most determinist thing we know, how come its so uncertain?
Very nice question Ahmed Fakeih. One more question has arisen in my mind. Is infinity quantitative or qualitative?
Dear Satsangi,
Kindly explain your question "Is infinity qualitative or quantitative?"
Regards
Please see the link
https://www.slideshare.net/debjyotibhattacharyya/from-zero-to-infinity-the-journey-of-indian-mathematics
The concepts can be extended to allow different sizes of infinite number, and different strengths of zero.
"Standard zero" is "1-1", or 1/∞
"Standard infinity" is 1/0
Once we've quantified the strengths of our zeroes and infinite numbers, using some sort of coefficient (similar to how we treat complex numbers) we can start to create mathematical rules that let us mix zeroes and infinities and get sensible answers, so for instance, when multiplying "two zero", with "two infinity", the infinities and zeroes drop out and leave us with just "four".
These "exotic" rules only apply when a calculation contains both infinities and zeroes. Any strength of zero times a normal number is always zero, and any strength of infinity times any normal number always gives an infinite outcome. We only need to keep track of the strengths if the result is then going to be used in a further calculation involving zeroes or infinities.
The zero of physics is the quantum vacuum, which contains infinite possibilities. One can make a 1/z conformal transformation between zero and infinity. They are two views of the same reality.
I think, in physics, zero is singularity. Singularity contains infinite possibilities.
1/0 is singularity, not 0. 0 and infinity are mathematical constructs, not physical. Physics has to measure values, and neither 0 no infinity is measurable.
Sometimes , we use term of "zero time" in a formulation but are we sure it is really "0" ? maybe it is 0,000......1 and is there a "zero" time(can we stop the time?), or sometimes, we say v=0 are we sure?
On the other hand
1/0 = infinity. Well then, what's "infinity"? How does it work in all the other equations?
infinity - infinity = 0?
1 + infinity = infinity?
If we use closest number to zero-monad (basic thing that constitutes the universe-everything-)Gottfreid Leibniz, in his essay “Monadology,” suggested that the fundamental unit of all things is the monad. He intended the monad to have some of the attributes of the atom, but with important differences. The monads Leibniz proposed are indivisible, indissoluble, and have no extension or shape, yet from them all things were made. He called them “the true atoms of nature.” At the same time, each monad mirrored the universe. If we use monad instead of zero, every equations work
FROM" https://www.researchgate.net/post/Why_do_we_use_0zero_in_physics_math_formulations_Is_there_a_real_0_in_real_universe2
By B. Russell The Axiom of Infinity (1904)
The first step is to demonstrate that there is such a number as 0. The number of things fulfilling any condition which nothing fulfils is defined to be 0; and it may be shown that there are such conditions. For example, nothing is a proposition which is both true and false. Consequently, the number of things which are propositions that are both true and false is 0. Thus there is such a number as 0.
We next define the number 1 as follows. The number of terms in a class is 1 if there is a term in the class such that, when that term is taken away, the number of terms remaining is 0
[...]
if m and n be two finite numbers other than 0, m+n is not identical with either m or n. It follows that, if n be any finite number, n is not the number of finite numbers, for the number of numbers from 0 to n is n+1, and n+1 is different from n. Thus no finite number is the number of finite numbers; and therefore, since the definition of cardinal numbers allows no doubt as to the existence of a number which is the number of finite numbers, it follows that this number is infinite. Hence, from the abstract principles of logic alone, the existence of infinite numbers is rigidly demonstrated.
1/0=+∞
1/-0=-∞
-0=0
1/0=1/-0
+∞=-∞ !!!!
see the proof of
i=√(-1)=-∞
in
New Philosophical View Merging Infinity, Imaginary number and Zero and a new Arithmetic Solving Indeterminants.
Article New Philosophical View Merging Infinity, Imaginary number an...
Dear S.A.Mabkhout,
According to my knowledge,your equations fourth and fifth are wrong .These equations are not compatible with the equations one and two which are correct.
Regards
Ramesh Chandra
The equations are well mathematically established. You should mention what is wrong.
Dear Salah A.Mabkhout,
Please draw the graph of the curve xy=1 and find the right hand limit and the left hand limit at x tends to zero;you will see the difference between the plus infinity and minus infinity.
Regards
Dear A.Wutke,
The limit of 1/x as x tends to zero is not defined because, the left hand limit tends to negative infinity and the right hand limit tends to plus infinity.
-0=-a*0=0 where,a is an arbitrary real no.
I hope that you will agree with the above. If not, kindly let me know with the details.
Regards
There's a great free book from Palo Alto talking about the same dilemma (the zero & the infinity concepts and their weaknesses). Unfortunately don't have the link, nor could find it anymore :(
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