If its intensity is constant and independent of the distance from the source in the far field, the locus of same intensity points can be traced to any shape, right? Then, why plane wave alone?
A plane wave ( y = A * sin (omega * t-k * x) is an idealization because the mathematical description is particularly simple, simplifying many calculations. But it is unphysical, because a plane wave transports infinite energy.
This will clarify your doubts. See attached pictures.
Plane waves: When planes of constant phase and constant amplitude are parallel to each other. That would then correspond to a lossless energy propagation.
See, in Fig 1: Plot of sin(x), a plane wave. Let blue donate points of constant magnitude (picked maximum in this case). Pink denotes points of constant phase (picked minimum in this case). Join the points to form a line.
The line in 2D (or, planes in 3D representation) AB and CD are then parallel to each other.
Fig 2: Plot of exp(-0.1*x) * sin(x), an attenuating wave. In this case AB is NOT parallel to CD. Not a plane wave.
The rigorous and simplest definition of a plane wave is the following: It is a wave that depends on a single Cartesian spatial coordinate only, in addition to time dependence. The word "Cartesian" is important because it means using a rectangular (Cartesian) system of coordinates in the above definition. If this single spatial coordinate is, for example, a distance "r" in a spherical system of coordinates, this will be not a plane wave, but a symmetrical spherical wave.
One good definition: “A plane wave is a constant-frequency wave whose wavefronts (surfaces of constant phase) are infinite parallel planes of constant peak-to-peak amplitude normal to the phase velocity vector”
Agree with Prof. Victor V. Krylov answer, F(x,t) = F(x.n - ct) = F(x - ct) with n = (i,j,k) is a plane wave, but F(r,t) = 1 /r . F(r.n - ct) is not since in the latter case the source is needed. In addition, plane waves are infinite parallel planes normal to the phase velocity vector.