Bell's Theorem is dependent on the following two premises:
Since the Bell Inequality is violated in experimentation it implies that either premise 1 or 2 are false. If some aspect of a particle doesn't exist before you measure it, then there wouldn't be anything for you to measure, so it must be premise 2 that is false. However, premise 2 is the most fundamental premise of general relativity, and so QM and GTR can't both be true. This is the EPR Paradox. EVERY MODERN THEORY THAT ATTEMPTS TO UNIFY PHYSICS IGNORES THIS PARADOX including QFT, and String Theory. As a result, such theories contain this contradiction, and thus by definition they will never give a logically accurate representation of reality. We can resolve this paradox in two ways but understanding the reasoning requires more tools than are typically used in physics such as formal systems. If you are interested in the solution, I recommend reading the abstract and section 1.1 of the linked article. Thanks for any feedback. Preprint THE FRAMEWORK OF EVERYTHING (FOE)
Dear Russel,
Your reasoning is based on the idea that Bell inequalities are broken in Alain Aspect experiment (the correlation function at certain angle deviates from correlation function for "naive" correlation function too much). This is wrong. Alain Aspect assumed that "naive" correlation function must be zig-zag function (see here [quant-ph/0402001] Bell's Theorem : The Naive View of an Experimentalist
Article Bell's Theorem : The Naive View of an Experimentalist
and when he measured the Cos function he assumed there is a big deviation which disproves the Bell inequality. However, his idea about "naive" correlation function is wrong - any correlation function between vectors must be sin or cos (linear on circle means sin or cos), see here:
Tipikin: August 2019
https://tipikin.blogspot.com/2019/08/
It means that quantum or classical correlation functions for polarized light is exactly the same, no violation of Bell inequality, no discovery of "entanglement", the experiment is merely completely wrongly interpreted. Why quantum solution coincides with classical? Because Schoedinger equation is wave equation and polarization is a property of any wave, classical or quantum mechanics. To discuss Einstein paradox, the Heisenberg quantum mechanics should be used - for example demonstration that Heisenberg inequality is wrong by direct measurement of pulse and distance
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