09 September 2019 5 8K Report

To elaborate:

If

X = (convolution of p(a), q(a) ,r(a))/(convolution of p(a), q(a))

Y = (convolution of p(a), q(a) ,s(a))/(convolution of p(a), q(a))

Why is X almost equal to Y even if (convolution of p(a), q(a) ,r(a))> (convolution of p(a), q(a) ,s(a))?

I'm unable to comprehend what happens. Please help. Thanks.

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